I still don’t understand if there is anything in this post that describes actual direct causality. If you look at the sports example, anticipation of a big game produces testosterone and winning a big game produces testosterone, but in neither case is testosterone shown to cause the game to start or cause one team to win. Same thing here: does testosterone actually cause traders to perform better, or do traders who perform better create more testosterone, or does something else entirely cause both? If it’s the second, then I would assume that testosterone producing ability would not alter mens’ vs womens’ ability to perform well, and if it’s the third then we really haven’t learned anything from this other than a marker for success that only works in men.
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